anas.eng441
2 Answers
Colleen
This is all I could find. It's the closest to the problem you posted. Hope it helps you to figure out the answer.
n = number of resistances
• Have a resistor in parallel is calculated as the inverse of the sum of the inverse of resistance. It sounds complicated but is not. It's just you calculate the inverse of each resistance, add everything and then calculate the inverse of this sum.
1 / R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + ... + 1/Rn
n = number of resistances
This solution was posted in Portuguese so I had to translate it. Source: http://au.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20081006082321AAgskVO
| 12 years ago. Rating: 1 | |
mbah semar
Related Questions In This Category
Top contributors in Programming & Design category
Unanswered Questions
789BET
Answers: 0
Views: 6
Rating: 0
LC79 – Đẳng cấp game bài
Answers: 0
Views: 5
Rating: 0
28BET
Answers: 0
Views: 6
Rating: 0
globalsourcesus
Answers: 0
Views: 3
Rating: 0
Can Love Happen Without Meeting in Person?
Answers: 0
Views: 6
Rating: 0
Tartan zemin kaplama
Answers: 0
Views: 7
Rating: 0
Alo789
Answers: 0
Views: 12
Rating: 0
789wincom
> More questions...
Answers: 0
Views: 10
Rating: 0